Dr H..
[QUOTE said:
JR, Something is wrong with you.
What's wrong with me? I feel fine.
Joseph, did not know his father – well the same can be said about all of us, because we are only going on what we are told.
Another useless comment. Many of us can know who our father is, and how? It's called DNA testing. You're just making up stuff to coverup a major biblical blunder.
Two fathers, to explain this is quite simple, take and moment and read Deuteronomy 25:5-6.
Deut. 25:5-6.
If brethren dwell together, and one of them die, and have no child, the wife of the dead shall not marry without unto a stranger: her husband's brother shall go in unto her, and take her to him to wife, and perform the duty of an husband's brother unto her.
And it shall be, that the firstborn which she beareth shall succeed in the name of his brother which is dead, that his name be not put out of Israel.
Where's biblical evidence that this actually occurred? You're making up a wild guess at best. Where did Joseph's biological father die in the bible to begin with? If that was the case, BOTH fathers would be in the same geneology, one following the other.
In addition, if your theory is correct (which it isn't), why are the other names in the geneologies different? If it's the SAME brother,
the names in the geneologies would be the same due to hereditary ties and genetics alone but the names are completely different. Nice try, but try again.
You didn't even touch upon the other contradicting names in the geneologies because you can't, no matter how much you try. I give you credit for trying though.:tup:
Note: if you have studied the bible for years, then you would understand how Joseph “had” two fathers. It’s called the Jewish Levirite laws – go and study the law. If you have taken a moment to use two useful object pen and paper and start writhing you have concluded that Heli was Joseph's Father in Law.
Like I stated earlier, if your theory is correct, the geneologies still would be the same because the other brother would have married the wife of the deceased brother. This would mean that the brother's geneology and hereditary history would've been exactly the same all the way up until the father. This is not the case.
Look at both geneologies, they're completely different, thus debunking your theory. The geneology listed in Matthew 1:1-16 is totally different from the one in Luke 3:23-38.
The last person that challenged me on the SWAC Board, several years ago "got embarassed" so don't count your chickens before they hatch...
Dr. H, it's not my intention to embarass anyone, however sometimes that happens regardless.
Fact of the matter simply is that many folks think they know the bible, but when it comes down to it, they don't really know it as well as they'd previously thought.
Many folks rely on sheer faith without checking into the history of the bible. I made this mistake as well. I must admit that I was wrong to do so.
Many don't know it's history, the contradictions within it, the historical inaccuracies, the prophetic inaccuracies, the archaeological inaccuracies, the plethora of plagiaristic writings within it and the unscientific data within it's pages. They don't know and they don't seem to want anyone else to know either, so they talk others into not asking questions or responding, even if it's out of sincere curiosity.
When it comes to the bible, it has some good points and not so good points and then some outright terrible points. It's honesty to talk about all of the above, not just the good deeds of the bible.
There is no way “then I could be wrong” that you do not understand adoption or how an individual can have two fathers –
Dr. H, I commend you for your efforts, but according to the bible, the Jesus character never claimed Joseph as HIS father. I gave you the verse where he told Joseph TO HIS FACE, that I MUST BE ABOUT
MY FATHER'S BUSINESS, and he was only twelve years old when he said it.
Where in the bible did the Jesus character claim Joseph as his father?
On the other hand, if Jesus was the god of the Old Testament (which the bible confirms), it simply means that it was HIS spirit that impregnated Mary thus making
Jesus his own daddy. LOL!!
A woman can be pregnant, husband dies and she re-marries. The child, would not know his “natural father” he would know and have a relationship with his mother second husband, which he would refer to as his father – but to an outsider the second husband, would be considered as the child’s stepfather.
Most of that's basic knowledge, but please show me where the Jesus character,
from his own mouth ever claimed Joseph to be his father. Whenever he said "father", he
never intended for it to mean Joseph, not one time. If he didn't, how can you?
Please show me ONE verse where Jesus ever referred to Joseph as his father.