Acts 2:47 / Blacknbengal


H

H

New Member
I read your question at work, what happen to it? I am familiar with Capital Street. I visit Hanging Moss or Parkview, whenever I am in Jackson. I have not visited the church in Coldwater.

Your understanding of Acts 2:47 is correct according to theology. But, not according to the ?worlds? definition or understanding. One of the most important words in the paragraph is ?Lord added to the Church? added is an imperfect active indicative. Which means that is a statement of fact the Lord added and continues to add the church. ?The church? implies at that particular time there was only one church. If there was more than one ?church? then Luke would heave used the word or words ?a church?

Slavery ? that?s a good way of explaining it. I attempt to explain what a how people practice Christianity the same way. I think most A A have forgotten or never understood the conversion of the Ethiopian Eunuch in Acts 8. The Eunuch had been to Jerusalem to worship {with the Jews}. He was then met and taught by Phillip, baptized and return to Ethiopia. Ethiopia was the first country in Africa to practice New Testament Christianity. {The home of our fore fathers} Europe was not exposed to Christianity, until Paul?s Missionary Journeys, several years later. We {Africans} were not exposed to denomination until slavery ? coming to America.

If you have an opportunity compare Christianity in Ethiopia with that in Europe - America.
 
Originally posted by H
I read your question at work, what happen to it? I am familiar with Capital Street. I visit Hanging Moss or Parkview, whenever I am in Jackson. I have not visited the church in Coldwater.

Your understanding of Acts 2:47 is correct according to theology. But, not according to the ?worlds? definition or understanding. One of the most important words in the paragraph is ?Lord added to the Church? added is an imperfect active indicative. Which means that is a statement of fact the Lord added and continues to add the church. ?The church? implies at that particular time there was only one church. If there was more than one ?church? then Luke would heave used the word or words ?a church?
Click to expand...

Well, explain the use of the word or words that Paul uses in 1 Corinthians 1:1-2 & 1 Thessalonians 2:14. :rolleyes:

It is understood that there is ONLY one church. Jesus's church, but if you say that other churches (because of names) are not biblical established or founded, then explain those two verses.

Also, explain the verses of Mark 9:38-42. (Thats a good one). :D
 

Click here to visit HBCUSportsShop
It is understood that there is ONLY one church. Jesus's church, but if you say that other churches (because of names) are not biblical established or founded, then explain those two verses.
Click to expand...
1 Thessalonians 2:14, I like that one!:)
I guess we really are ONE Body with Many Different parts.;)
 
Explain, word or words? Are you asking to explain 1 Thessalonians 2:14, the use of t he word churches?

If so I have to also go back to book of Acts and explain Paul's preaching to the entire country of Rome. All the writings of Paul, is an continuation from the Acts of The Apostle {Acts}

I do not have a problem explaining it. I just want to make sure that's what you are asking.
 
Jesus, is teaching about Sectarianism {38-41}

Jesus, rebukes any kind of sectarian spirit. Jesus, is teaching on the basis of unity "In My Name or by The Authority of My Name". That which is done in the name of Jesus cannot be denied by any disciple "follower". However, the label of "Jesus" is used by every "spiritual leader" today actually is not "in His name"

Verse 42: Teaches about Hell

In this verse: Jesus, refers back to the child that he has taken into his arms {36,37}. He, is "rebukes" those who offended the child. {42} Then He adds {43}. I think to many people has dismissed the idea of hell.

Note: Hell is the place of the future punishment call "Gehenna" or "Gehenna of fire". This was originally the valley of Hinnom, South of Jerusalem, where the filth and dead animals of the city were cast out and burned; a fit symbol of the wicked and their future destruction.

This is Jesus, talking about hell.

In his teachings where various parts of the body is used . He is saying various parts of the body can cause an individual to sin. As in the case of Adam & Eve and King David. Their eyes caused them to sin.
 
Originally posted by H
Explain, word or words? Are you asking to explain 1 Thessalonians 2:14, the use of t he word churches?
Explain the way Paul ask the Thessalonians to be imitators like the members of the (churches of GOD in CHRIST) in Judea.

Click to expand...
 
Originally posted by H
Jesus, is teaching about Sectarianism {38-41}

Jesus, rebukes any kind of sectarian spirit. Jesus, is teaching on the basis of unity "In My Name or by The Authority of My Name". That which is done in the name of Jesus cannot be denied by any disciple "follower". However, the label of "Jesus" is used by every "spiritual leader" today actually is not "in His name"
Click to expand...

Ok. But, please simplify for the laments. True that any (true) follower can not deny the name of Jesus, so evidently that these people in Mark 9:38 had enough faith in "Jesus's Name" and probably Jesus to cast out demons. But by John's remark, these people were not walking around (physically) with Jesus and his disciples everywhere they went. They were not part of that ordinary crowd that followed Jesus and his disciples. For if they were, then John would have not stated what he did. And we know that spiritually that you have to have Jesus and be REAL about what you are doing or you will be like the sons of Sceva in Acts 19:13-16.
 
You must log in or register to reply here.
Back
Top